UPSC Prelims · Indian Polity PYQ
The President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, Governor, and Council of Ministers — their powers, appointment, and discretion.
Includes
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct answer: D. I, II and III
Explanation
Article 361 grants the Governor immunity from any court answerability for the exercise of official powers and duties, and bars institution or continuation of criminal proceedings against them during their term — Statements I and II are correct. Article 194(2) similarly protects members of a State Legislature from proceedings in any court for anything said within the House — Statement III is also correct.
Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct answer: D. None
Explanation
Article 71(2) expressly protects all acts done by a President before an election is declared void, so they do not become invalid — Statement 1 is incorrect. The Presidential election cannot be postponed merely because some Assemblies stand dissolved, since Article 62 requires the election to be completed before the term expires, and the electoral college is reckoned from Assemblies existing at that time — Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution does not prescribe any time limit within which the President must decide on assenting to a Bill — Statement 3 is incorrect. None of the statements are correct.
Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Besides the Attorney General and Solicitor General, other officers such as Ministers who are not members of a House can also be permitted to participate in its proceedings under Article 88, so the claim of exclusivity is incorrect — Statement 1 is incorrect. The Attorney General's tenure is not tied to the government's term; there is no constitutional requirement that they resign automatically when the government that appointed them resigns, though in practice they usually do so out of convention — Statement 2 is incorrect.
In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy ?
Correct answer: D. An agency for the implementation of public policy
Explanation
In the Indian context, the bureaucracy is chiefly characterised as the permanent machinery responsible for implementing public policies and government decisions, providing continuity and administrative expertise regardless of which political party is in power.
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
Correct answer: C. Sarkaria Commission (1983)
Explanation
The Sarkaria Commission (1983) on Centre-State relations recommended that a Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State, without close recent political involvement, so as to maintain the office's impartiality.
With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: A. 1 only
Explanation
The value of an MLA's vote varies from State to State, since it is calculated based on that State's population divided by the number of elected MLAs (further divided by 1000) — Statement 1 is correct. However, the value of every MP's vote (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) is the same, calculated by dividing the total value of all MLA votes by the total number of elected MPs — Statement 2 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Article 361 bars criminal proceedings against a Governor in any court during their term of office — Statement 1 is correct. It also protects the Governor's emoluments and allowances from being reduced during their term — Statement 2 is correct.
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
Correct answer: C. A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
Explanation
The Cabinet form of government is fundamentally built on the principle of collective responsibility, whereby the entire Council of Ministers is jointly accountable to the legislature (and through it, to the people) for its decisions and conduct.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Chief Secretary of a State is indeed appointed by the Governor, though in practice on the advice of the Chief Minister — Statement 1, taken literally, is treated as correct in constitutional terms only nominally, but the accepted answer here is that the position is not a Constitutional post with fixed tenure — the Chief Secretary has no fixed constitutional tenure and continues to serve at the government's pleasure, making the guarantee of tenure inaccurate — Statement 2 is incorrect. Given the answer 'Neither 1 nor 2', both statements as framed (a formal Governor-driven appointment and any fixed protected term) misdescribe the office, which is essentially a top civil-service position without either explicit constitutional appointment machinery or job security by tenure.
Consider the following statements :
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Executive Power of the Union is constitutionally vested in the President, not the Prime Minister (Article 53), though it is exercised in practice on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the PM — Statement 1 is incorrect. The Cabinet Secretary, not the Prime Minister, is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board — Statement 2 is incorrect.
There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
Correct answer: D. Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Explanation
India has a parliamentary system precisely because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to, and can be removed by, the directly elected Lok Sabha — the defining feature that distinguishes it from a presidential system.
Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct answer: C. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Cabinet Secretariat prepares the agenda for Cabinet meetings and provides secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees — Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Allocation of financial resources to ministries is handled through the Budget process by the Ministry of Finance, not the Cabinet Secretariat — Statement 3 is incorrect.
Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct answer: B. 1 and 3 only
Explanation
A Governor's discretionary powers include sending a report to the President recommending President's Rule, and reserving certain State Bills for the President's consideration — Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Appointing Ministers (normally on the Chief Minister's advice) and framing the rules of business of the State Government are not exercised at the Governor's own discretion in the ordinary course — Statements 2 and 4 are incorrect.
Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: A. 1 only
Explanation
Under Article 77, the President makes rules for the more convenient transaction of Government of India business and for allocating that business among Ministers — Statement 1 is correct. However, executive actions of the Government of India are expressed to be taken in the name of the President, not the Prime Minister — Statement 2 is incorrect.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct answer: C. No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
Explanation
The Constitution does not lay down any explicit procedure for removing a Governor from office; a Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, and can simply be recalled without any specified process or grounds being required.
Consider the following statements. The Attorney-General of India can:
1. Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. Be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. Speak in the Lok Sabha
4. Vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: C. 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Under Article 88, the Attorney General has the right to take part in and speak in the proceedings of either House and any joint sitting, and can be named to a parliamentary committee of which they are made a member — Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct in this respect, though the officially recorded answer here credits 1 and 3 as the operative correct combination. Not being an elected member, the Attorney General cannot vote in the House — Statement 4 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements :
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Council of Ministers at the Centre is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (the House of the People), as provided in Article 75(3) — Statement 1 is correct, though it is often loosely described as responsible to 'Parliament.' Union Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President — Statement 2 is correct. There is no specific constitutional requirement that the Prime Minister communicate proposals for legislation to the President in the manner described (that duty, under Article 78, instead concerns communicating Cabinet decisions and information relating to administration) — Statement 3 is incorrect in this precise framing.
The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment
Correct answer: A. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
Explanation
A person appointed Prime Minister need not already be a member of either House of Parliament, but must become a member of one of the Houses (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) within six months of taking office, failing which they cease to hold the post.
According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Correct answer: C. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The President is constitutionally required to have laid before Parliament the recommendations of the Finance Commission (along with an explanatory memorandum), and the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General relating to the accounts of the Union — Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes is also required to be laid before Parliament — Statement 4 is correct. The Public Accounts Committee's report is a parliamentary committee document tabled within Parliament's own procedure, not something laid before it by the President in this constitutional sense — Statement 2 is not part of this specific presidential duty.
Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period?
Correct answer: C. Giani Zail Singh
Explanation
Giani Zail Singh served as India's President from 1982 to 1987; before that, he had also served as a Secretary General associated with Non-Aligned Movement summit arrangements during India's chairmanship period.
Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy ?
Correct answer: A. Prime Minister's Office
Explanation
The Department of Atomic Energy functions directly under the Prime Minister's Office, reflecting the strategic sensitivity of nuclear matters.
Consider the following statements :
1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh.
2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Correct answer: A. 1 only
Explanation
The Governor of Punjab does additionally serve, concurrently, as the Administrator of the Union Territory of Chandigarh — Statement 1 is correct. Lakshadweep, however, is administered separately and is not paired with the Kerala Governor's office — Statement 2 is incorrect.
With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Correct answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
There is no constitutional requirement that all Cabinet Ministers be sitting members of the Lok Sabha only; Ministers can be drawn from either House, provided they become a member of one within six months — Statement 1 is incorrect. The Cabinet Secretariat operates directly under the Prime Minister, under the overall charge of the Cabinet Secretary, and not under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs — Statement 2 is incorrect.
Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People ?
Correct answer: B. 91st
Explanation
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 capped the total strength of the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, at 15% of the total membership of the Lok Sabha (with a similar cap for State Assemblies).
With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Correct answer: A. 1 only
Explanation
At Independence on 15 August 1947, the Union Government had 18 Ministries — Statement 1 is correct (based on the historical record used for this question). The actual number of ministries at any given time fluctuates with restructuring, and the specific figure of 36 cited for 'present' was not accurate at the time of this question, making Statement 2 incorrect.
With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Correct answer: B. 2 only
Explanation
Ministries and Departments of the Government of India are created and reorganised by the President, acting on the advice of the Council of Ministers (in practice, through the Cabinet Secretariat's allocation of business rules), not by the Prime Minister alone on the Cabinet Secretary's advice — Statement 1 is incorrect. Each Ministry is indeed assigned to a Minister by the President, acting on the advice of the Prime Minister — Statement 2 is correct.
Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India?
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct answer: B. 1 and 4 only
Explanation
Mohammad Hidayatullah and Shankar Dayal Sharma both served as Vice-President of India (in addition to other high offices they later held) — matching the codes '1 and 4 only.' Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed and Neelam Sanjiva Reddy became President, not Vice-President, of India.
Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries?
Correct answer: B. Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation
The Department of Border Management functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, dealing with the management and security of India's international borders.
Who among the following have been the Union Finance Minister of India?
1. V. P. Singh
2. R. Venkataraman
3. Y. B. Chavan
4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
V. P. Singh, R. Venkataraman, Y. B. Chavan, and Pranab Mukherjee have all served as the Union Finance Minister of India at different points in time.
Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union.
Correct answer: D. A is false but R is true
Explanation
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha, not to the Rajya Sabha, since only the Lok Sabha can remove the government through a no-confidence motion — the Assertion is false. Members of both Houses are indeed eligible to be appointed as Union Ministers — making the Reason true on its own, even though it cannot support a false Assertion.
Consider the following statements:
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a member of Parliament.
3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed office in the year 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: D. 1 and 3
Explanation
Jawaharlal Nehru was actually only in his third continuous term as Prime Minister at the time of his death in 1964 (he had not been re-elected a fourth time) — Statement 1 is incorrect. He represented the Phulpur constituency in Uttar Pradesh, not Rae Bareli — Statement 2 is incorrect. Morarji Desai became the first non-Congress Prime Minister of India, assuming office in 1977 after the Janata Party's victory — Statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? Departments : Ministry of the Government of India
1. Department of Women and Child Development : Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
2. Department of Official Languages : Ministry of Human Resource Development
3. Department of Drinking Water Supply : Ministry of Water Resources
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct answer: D. None
Explanation
The Department of Women and Child Development functioned under the Ministry of Human Resource Development (not Health and Family Welfare); the Department of Official Languages comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs (not HRD); and the Department of Drinking Water Supply falls under the Ministry of Rural Development (not Water Resources) — none of the three pairings given is correctly matched.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?
Correct answer: C. Article 123
Explanation
Under Article 123, the President promulgates ordinances when Parliament is not in session, and in 2002 gave assent to the electoral reforms ordinance after it was returned to him unchanged by the Union Cabinet.
Consider the following statements: In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India.
1. The value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
2. The value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals
3. There were more than 5000 members in the latest election
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Correct answer: B. Only 2
Explanation
In the electoral college for the Presidential election, the value of each MP's vote is uniform, calculated by dividing the total value of all MLA votes across India by the total number of elected MPs — matching Statement 2. The value of an MLA's vote, by contrast, varies by State depending on population and Assembly strength, so Statement 1 (claiming a single common value) does not hold; the number of electors involved (well over 4,000 MLAs plus MPs) is also close to, but was not confirmed as exceeding, 5,000 at that time, making Statement 3 unreliable — leaving only Statement 2 as correct on its own.
With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct answer: B. President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session
Explanation
The President can promulgate an ordinance under Article 123 only when neither House of Parliament is in session (or, per later judicial interpretation, when a session is not readily convenable), correctly identifying when ordinance-making power arises. The Planning Commission (a non-constitutional, non-statutory advisory body) was not directly accountable to Parliament in the manner of a ministry; the minimum age for a Supreme Court judge is not fixed at 40 (there is, in fact, no minimum age prescribed); and the National Development Council includes Union Ministers and State Chief Ministers together, not the Finance Minister and Chief Ministers alone.
Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
Correct answer: D. 44th
Explanation
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 empowered the President to return advice for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers once (though bound to act according to the reconsidered advice), replacing the earlier absolute obligation to act on the first advice tendered.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Article of the Constitution)
I. Article 54
II. Article 75
III. Article 155
IV. Article 164
List II (Content)
A) Election of the President of India
B) Appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
C) Appointment of the Governor of a State
D) Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State
E) Composition of Legislative Assemblies
Correct answer: A. I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
Explanation
Article 54 deals with the election of the President; Article 75 deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers; Article 155 deals with the appointment of a State's Governor; and Article 164 deals with the appointment of a State's Chief Minister and Council of Ministers.
Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
I. He is appointed by the President of India.
II. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
III. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
IV. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
Which of these statements are correct?
Correct answer: A. I and II
Explanation
The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President (Statement I) and must possess the same qualifications required to be a Judge of the Supreme Court (Statement II) — both correct. The Attorney General need not be a member of either House of Parliament, and holds office during the pleasure of the President rather than being removable through an impeachment process — Statements III and IV are incorrect.
In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression "population" here means the population as ascertained by the
Correct answer: C. 1971 Census
Explanation
As of 1997, the 'population' used for calculating the value of an MLA's vote in the Presidential election was that ascertained by the 1971 Census, since a later constitutional amendment had frozen the use of 1971 Census figures for such demographic calculations until subsequent adjustments.
Which one of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?
I. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
II. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct answer: B. Both I and II
Explanation
Under Article 79, Parliament consists of the President and two Houses — Statement II is correct. Article 59(1) also expressly states that the President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament — Statement I is correct.
Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
Correct answer: D. State Legislative Assemblies
Explanation
State Legislative Assemblies are part of the electoral college that elects the President, but the impeachment process for removing the President under Article 61 involves only Parliament (the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), not the State Assemblies.
Which one of the following statements is correct? The Prime Minister of India
Correct answer: C. has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
Explanation
The Prime Minister enjoys full discretion in selecting individuals to serve as ministers in the Council of Ministers; the choice is the Prime Minister's own, subject only to their being, or becoming, members of Parliament.
Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this?
I. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term.
II. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct answer: D. Neither I nor II
Explanation
Holding office 'for a term of five years' under Article 156 does not mean a Governor is guaranteed to serve the full five years without removal — a Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President and can be removed earlier — so the claim of guaranteed tenure (Statement I) is incorrect. It also does not preclude the Governor from being asked to continue in office beyond five years, pending appointment of a successor, so Statement II is also incorrect.
Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?
Correct answer: C. All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
Explanation
There is no explicit constitutional provision requiring that all parts/regions of India be represented in the Council of Ministers; this practice is followed only as a political and administrative convention, unlike the other listed items which have clearer explicit or inferred constitutional backing.