UPSC Prelims · Indian Economy PYQ
UPI and digital payment systems, Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile, financial inclusion initiatives, and India's fintech ecosystem.
Includes
Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT :
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: A. I only
Explanation
RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) is designed for high-value transactions and settles payments instantaneously and individually (gross basis), whereas NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) historically settled payments in half-hourly batches (though NEFT has since moved to near-continuous 24x7 settlement) — Statement I is broadly correct as per the traditional distinction tested here. Statement II is incorrect: RBI guidelines prohibit banks from levying charges on customers for inward transactions under both RTGS and NEFT — inward transactions are free in both systems, so there is no such distinguishing charge.
Statement III is also incorrect in the current framework, since both RTGS and NEFT now operate 24x7 following RBI's 2019/2020 reforms removing time-window restrictions; historically RTGS did have restricted timings, but this is no longer a valid distinguishing feature. Hence only Statement I holds, answer (a).
UPSC takeaway: RBI has progressively made payment systems (NEFT, RTGS) available round-the-clock — always check for the latest circular before assuming older operational-hours restrictions still apply.
Consider the following countries :
I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
Correct answer: B. Only three
Explanation
The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) has been progressively internationalized by NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL), enabling Indian users to make UPI payments to merchants in select countries. As of the relevant period, international merchant UPI acceptance included countries such as the United Arab Emirates, Singapore, and France (notably for merchants near tourist landmarks like the Eiffel Tower), alongside neighbouring countries like Nepal, Bhutan, and Sri Lanka via QR-code arrangements.
Germany and Bangladesh were not part of the merchant-acceptance network in this set. This yields three qualifying countries (UAE, Singapore, France) from the given list, making "Only three" — answer (b) — correct.
UPSC takeaway: UPI's global expansion (P2P remittance tie-ups vs. merchant payment acceptance) is a fast-evolving current affairs area — track NPCI International's latest partner-country list each year rather than relying on memorized older lists.
Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee :
1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Correct answer: D. 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
The Digital Rupee (e₹), India's Central Bank Digital Currency, is a sovereign currency issued directly by the RBI and forms part of its monetary policy toolkit — confirming Statement 1. As a direct RBI liability (unlike bank deposits, which are liabilities of commercial banks), it appears on the RBI's balance sheet exactly like physical currency in circulation — confirming Statement 2. It is freely convertible on a one-to-one basis with cash and commercial bank money, since it is simply a digital form of the rupee — confirming Statement 4.
However, Statement 3 is incorrect: the digital rupee is not "inflation-proof" by design; it is subject to the same inflation dynamics as the physical rupee because it represents the same underlying currency, not a separate inflation-indexed instrument. This gives Statements 1, 2 and 4 as correct, answer (d).
UPSC takeaway: CBDCs replicate the properties of physical cash digitally — they don't inherently solve macroeconomic problems like inflation, only payment-system problems like traceability, cost, and settlement speed.
With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements :
1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) offer settlement mechanisms that operate outside traditional correspondent banking networks. Because a CBDC transaction can be settled directly central-bank-to-central-bank or through bilateral CBDC arrangements, it is technically possible to make cross-border payments without routing through the US dollar as an intermediary currency or through the SWIFT messaging system — confirming Statement 1, a feature of interest to countries seeking to reduce dependence on dollar-based settlement.
CBDCs can also be designed as "programmable money," where the central bank or issuing authority embeds conditions into the currency itself — such as expiry dates, spending restrictions, or purpose-limited usage (e.g., welfare transfers usable only for specific goods within a time-frame) — confirming Statement 2. Both statements are correct, giving answer (c).
UPSC takeaway: CBDCs' two most-tested features are (1) potential to bypass dollar/SWIFT-based settlement and (2) programmability — link both to ongoing de-dollarization and financial-inclusion debates.
Consider the following statements :
1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct answer: B. Only two
Explanation
Self-Help Groups (SHGs) in India were pioneered through the linkage of informal women's savings groups with formal banking, an initiative originally piloted by NABARD (not the State Bank of India) in the late 1980s-early 1990s, later scaled up as the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme — making Statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 is correct: SHGs function on the principle of joint liability, where all members collectively take responsibility for loans taken by any individual member, incentivizing peer monitoring and high repayment rates.
Statement 3 is also correct: Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks, along with cooperative banks, actively support and finance SHGs under the SHG-Bank Linkage framework promoted by NABARD. This gives two correct statements (2 and 3), matching "Only two," answer (b).
UPSC takeaway: NABARD, not SBI, is the originating and nodal institution behind India's SHG movement — a frequently tested attribution trap.
With reference to ‘WaterCredit’, consider the following statements :
1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct answer: C. 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The "lender of last resort" (LoLR) function of a central bank refers to its role in providing emergency liquidity support to commercial banks facing temporary liquidity crises (e.g., sudden deposit withdrawals or short-term funding stress), preventing bank failures and systemic contagion — this precisely matches point 2. The LoLR function is specifically about supporting banks, not trade/industry bodies directly (point 1 describes a different, non-standard function not typically associated with LoLR) or financing government budgetary deficits (point 3 describes deficit monetization, a distinct and generally discouraged central bank activity, especially under fiscal responsibility norms).
Since only point 2 accurately describes the LoLR function, the answer is (b), "2 only."
UPSC takeaway: "lender of last resort" is specifically about bank liquidity support during crises — do not conflate it with general central bank lending to industry or government deficit financing, which are separate (and often prohibited or restricted) functions.
Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that 1. They shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India.
2. They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises.
3. They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: A. 1 only
Explanation
RBI's 2018 data localization directive (the "data diktat") mandated that all payment system providers ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them be stored exclusively on servers located within India, aimed at ensuring unfettered regulatory access and data sovereignty, confirming Statement 1. However, the directive did NOT require that payment systems be owned and operated by public sector enterprises — data localization concerns data storage location, not ownership structure, so private and foreign payment companies could continue operating provided they stored data domestically, making Statement 2 incorrect.
Statement 3 is also incorrect: the directive required payment system providers to submit a system audit report confirming compliance to RBI itself, not to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which has no direct regulatory role over private payment system data compliance. With only Statement 1 correct, the answer is (a), "1 only."
UPSC takeaway: RBI's data localization mandate is about WHERE data is stored (India only), not WHO owns the payment system — a frequently conflated pair of requirements.
Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news ?
Correct answer: C. The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
Explanation
The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is the fee charged by a bank (or payment service provider) to a merchant for facilitating a digital/card-based transaction — essentially the cost merchants bear for accepting payments through debit/credit cards or other digital payment instruments processed by the bank. This matches option (c) precisely: the charge to a merchant for accepting customer payments via the bank's debit card infrastructure.
It is not an incentive paid to merchants (a, d) nor a reward paid back to customers (b) — MDR flows in the opposite direction, from merchant to bank/payment provider. The correct answer is (c).
UPSC takeaway: MDR is a cost borne by merchants (not a reward given to them) — remember this when digital payment promotion policies (like MDR waivers on UPI/RuPay to encourage merchant adoption) come up in current affairs.
Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India ?
Correct answer: C. National Payments Corporation of India
Explanation
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organization for retail payments and settlement systems in India (set up by RBI and IBA, with major bank shareholders), operates the National Financial Switch (NFS) — the network that interlinks and enables interoperability among ATMs of different banks across India, allowing any customer to use any bank's ATM. This is distinct from the Indian Banks' Association (an industry lobbying/coordination body), the National Securities Depository Limited (a securities depository, unrelated to ATM networks), or the RBI itself (the regulator, not the operational network provider). The correct answer is (c).
UPSC takeaway: NPCI is the backbone operator behind India's key retail payment infrastructures — NFS (ATM interlinking), UPI, RuPay, IMPS, and more — a foundational institutional fact for digital payments questions.
What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
1. To supply credit to small business units
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Small Finance Banks (SFBs), licensed by RBI starting 2015 under a differentiated banking license framework, were specifically established to extend the reach of formal banking and credit to underserved segments of the economy. Their primary objectives include providing credit access to small business units and micro/small enterprises (point 1) and to small and marginal farmers who often lack access to formal agricultural credit (point 2), thereby furthering financial inclusion.
However, encouraging young entrepreneurs broadly to set up new businesses in rural areas (point 3) is not a specifically stated core mandate of SFBs — their focus is more narrowly on credit delivery to underserved/unserved segments (small businesses, farmers, micro-enterprises, unorganised sector entities) rather than a broader entrepreneurship-promotion mission. This gives points 1 and 2 as the correct core purposes, matching answer (a), "1 and 2 only."
UPSC takeaway: SFBs' RBI-mandated purpose centers narrowly on credit access for financially underserved small businesses, farmers, and micro-enterprises — not a general rural entrepreneurship promotion mandate.
Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?
Correct answer: A. Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
Explanation
The Unified Payments Interface (UPI), launched by NPCI in 2016, enables seamless, real-time bank-to-bank money transfers directly through a mobile application using a Virtual Payment Address, without requiring users to share bank account details for each transaction. Because UPI allows direct, instant transfers between bank accounts (functioning essentially as a superior alternative to pre-loaded mobile wallets, which require users to first load and hold money in a separate wallet balance), its most direct and likely consequence is reducing the necessity of mobile wallets for online payments, since users can transact directly from their bank accounts with similar convenience — matching option (a).
The other options (digital currency totally replacing physical currency, drastic FDI increases, or highly effective subsidy transfers) are either exaggerated, unrelated, or only indirectly and partially connected to UPI's core function as an interbank payment interface. The correct answer is (a).
UPSC takeaway: UPI's core innovation is enabling direct bank-to-bank transfers via a simple interface, structurally reducing the need for intermediary mobile wallets that require pre-loaded balances.
Consider the following statements:
1. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting financial inclusion in the country.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct answer: C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), as the umbrella retail payments infrastructure organization in India, has indeed played a significant role in promoting financial inclusion through affordable, accessible digital payment systems (like UPI, AePS - Aadhaar Enabled Payment System, and BHIM), confirming Statement 1. NPCI did launch RuPay, India's own domestic card payment network scheme (an alternative to international networks like Visa/Mastercard), confirming Statement 2.
Both statements accurately describe NPCI's role and initiatives, giving answer (c), "Both 1 and 2."
UPSC takeaway: RuPay (NPCI's indigenous card network) and UPI are both NPCI initiatives specifically designed to reduce dependence on foreign payment networks while advancing financial inclusion — a recurring pairing in digital payments questions.
The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion.
Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct answer: B. 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Payment Banks in India, as per RBI's 2014 guidelines, permitted a wide range of promoters including mobile telephone companies and supermarket/retail chains (provided they are owned and controlled by residents, meeting RBI's "fit and proper" and ownership criteria) to apply for and operate Payment Bank licenses, confirming point 1. However, Payment Banks are explicitly prohibited from issuing credit cards — they can issue debit cards (linked to their savings/current accounts) but not credit cards, since credit card issuance involves lending, which Payment Banks cannot undertake, making point 2 incorrect.
Payment Banks are indeed prohibited from undertaking any lending activities (they can only accept deposits up to a specified limit and provide payments/remittance services), confirming point 3. This gives points 1 and 3 as correct, matching answer (b), "1 and 3 only."
UPSC takeaway: Payment Banks can issue debit cards but NOT credit cards, and cannot lend at all — their entire business model is restricted to deposits, payments, and remittances, a key regulatory distinction from full-service banks.
With reference to ‘Stand Up India Scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct answer: C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Stand Up India Scheme, launched in 2016, is specifically designed to promote entrepreneurship among Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), and women entrepreneurs by facilitating bank loans (between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore) for setting up greenfield enterprises in manufacturing, services, or trading sectors, confirming point 1. The scheme operates through a refinance window provided by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI), which supports the participating banks extending these loans, confirming point 2.
Both points accurately describe the scheme's target beneficiaries and its refinancing mechanism, giving answer (c), "Both 1 and 2."
UPSC takeaway: Stand Up India specifically targets SC/ST and women entrepreneurs (distinct from the broader-based MUDRA scheme) with a defined loan range, refinanced through SIDBI — remember this targeted demographic focus as its distinguishing feature.
The term 'Core Banking Solutions' is sometimes seen in the news.
Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?
1. It is a networking of a bank's branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts.
2. It is an effort to increase RBI's control over commercial banks through computerization.
3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct answer: A. 1 only
Explanation
Core Banking Solutions (CBS) refers to the technology-driven networking/integration of all branches of a bank onto a centralized IT platform, enabling customers to access and operate their bank accounts (deposits, withdrawals, fund transfers) from ANY branch of that bank across the network, regardless of which specific branch they originally opened their account at — this precisely matches point 1. CBS is fundamentally a customer-convenience and operational-efficiency technology initiative by individual banks, not a mechanism to increase RBI's regulatory control over banks (an unrelated/incorrect characterization, point 2), nor is it related to any bank-takeover or NPA-resolution procedure (an entirely different concept, point 3).
With only point 1 accurately describing CBS, the answer is (a), "1 only."
UPSC takeaway: Core Banking Solutions is purely about branch-network technology integration for seamless "anywhere banking" — don't conflate it with regulatory oversight mechanisms or NPA-resolution/bank-merger procedures, which are unrelated concepts.
Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at
Correct answer: A. bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY), launched in 2015, provides collateral-free loans (categorized as Shishu, Kishor, and Tarun based on loan size) to small and micro non-corporate, non-farm enterprises, aiming specifically to bring small entrepreneurs and micro-businesses — many operating in the informal sector — into the formal financial system by providing them access to institutional credit through the Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) mechanism, matching option (a) precisely. It is not focused on crop-specific farm loans (b), old-age pensions (c), or funding voluntary organizations for skill development (d), each of which are addressed by entirely separate government schemes.
The correct answer is (a).
UPSC takeaway: MUDRA's core purpose is formalizing credit access for small, non-farm micro-enterprises (the "unfunded" informal business sector) — distinct from agricultural credit schemes like Kisan Credit Card.
‘Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana’ has been launched for
Correct answer: C. promoting financial inclusion in the country
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), launched in 2014, is India's flagship National Mission for Financial Inclusion, aimed at ensuring universal access to banking facilities for every unbanked household — providing basic zero-balance savings accounts, RuPay debit cards, access to credit, insurance, and pension products — thereby bringing previously excluded populations into the formal financial system, matching option (c) precisely. It is not specifically a housing loan scheme, an SHG-promotion initiative, or a general marginalized-community financial assistance programme in the narrow senses described in the other options, though financial inclusion does indirectly benefit marginalized groups through broader account access.
The correct answer is (c).
UPSC takeaway: PMJDY is fundamentally India's universal financial inclusion mission (zero-balance accounts, RuPay cards, insurance/pension bundling) — the foundational scheme underlying India's broader JAM (Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile) trinity framework.
What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?
1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct answer: C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Business Correspondents (BCs, popularly termed "Bank Saathi"), a key financial inclusion mechanism allowing banks to extend banking services to unbanked/underbanked areas through authorized local agents (rather than requiring costly physical branch expansion), enable beneficiaries in branchless rural areas to draw their government subsidies and social security benefits (like pension payments, MGNREGA wages) locally within their village, avoiding the need to travel to distant bank branches, confirming point 1. BCs also facilitate basic banking transactions for rural residents, including making deposits and withdrawals from their bank accounts through the BC's local access point, confirming point 2.
Both points accurately describe the core services BCs provide in branchless banking areas, giving answer (c), "Both 1 and 2."
UPSC takeaway: the Business Correspondent model is India's key "last-mile" financial inclusion delivery mechanism, enabling both government benefit disbursal AND basic banking transactions without requiring a physical bank branch in every village.
Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under microfinance is/are:
1. Credit facilities
2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Correct answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Microfinance, as a mechanism for extending financial services to low-income individuals and self-employed persons who typically lack access to conventional formal banking, encompasses a comprehensive range of services beyond just credit. This includes credit facilities (small loans for income-generating activities, item 1), savings facilities (enabling low-income individuals to safely save small amounts, item 2), insurance facilities (microinsurance products covering health, life, or crop-related risks tailored for low-income clients, item 3), and fund transfer facilities (enabling remittances and money transfers for this population, item 4).
Since microfinance institutions and models have progressively expanded to offer all these various financial service types to serve their low-income client base comprehensively, the answer is (d), "1, 2, 3 and 4."
UPSC takeaway: microfinance is NOT limited to just small loans (credit) — it comprehensively spans credit, savings, insurance, AND fund transfer services, reflecting a holistic financial-inclusion approach for underserved populations.
With reference to India, consider the following :
1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the “financial inclusion” in India ?
Correct answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Nationalisation of banks (1969/1980) directed credit toward priority and rural sectors, Regional Rural Banks were specifically created to extend banking to underserved rural areas, and village adoption by bank branches aimed to spread banking services — all three genuinely advanced financial inclusion in India.