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UPSC Prelims · Indian Economy PYQ

Fiscal Policy & Budget UPSC PYQ — Deficits, Union Budget & FRBM

The Union Budget process, fiscal and revenue deficits, government borrowing, the FRBM framework, and public expenditure management.

44 Questions · 1995–2025

Includes

Union Budget Fiscal Deficit FRBM Act Public Expenditure Government Borrowing
Take as Test Timed, negative marking, year-wise scoring
  1. 1 2025

    Consider the following statements:
    I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
    II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
    III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. A I and II only
    2. B II and III only
    3. C I and III only
    4. D I, II and III
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. I and II only

    Explanation

    Capital receipts are government receipts that either create a liability (e.g., market borrowings, loans from RBI/other sources that must be repaid) or cause a reduction in government assets (e.g., disinvestment proceeds from selling PSU shares, recovery of loans). This is the textbook definition, making Statement I correct.

    Borrowings and disinvestment proceeds are the two most cited examples of capital receipts, confirming Statement II. Statement III is incorrect: interest received by the government (e.g., on loans it has extended to states or PSUs) is a revenue receipt — it is recurring income that neither creates a liability nor reduces an asset; rather, it is interest received, the opposite direction of a liability. Hence I and II are correct, III is not, giving answer (a).

    UPSC takeaway: classify receipts by testing them against the liability/asset-reduction rule — this single test resolves nearly all revenue-vs-capital receipt classification questions in the Budget.

  2. 2 2025

    A country’s fiscal deficit stands at 50,000 crores. It is receiving 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are € 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

    1. A %48,500 crores
    2. B %51,500 crores
    3. C %58,500 crores
    4. D None of the above [P.T.0.
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. %48,500 crores

    Explanation

    Fiscal deficit represents the gap between total expenditure and total non-debt receipts (revenue receipts plus non-debt creating capital receipts like disinvestment); it is already a net figure that accounts for such receipts, so the ₹10,000 crore non-debt capital receipt is a distractor not to be subtracted again. Primary deficit is calculated as Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments, because primary deficit isolates the deficit generated by current fiscal operations, excluding the burden of past borrowings (interest liabilities).

    Here, Primary Deficit = ₹50,000 crore − ₹1,500 crore = ₹48,500 crore, making (a) correct. The term "gross primary deficit" is simply the standard primary deficit figure (as opposed to a "net" figure adjusted for below-the-line items, rarely tested at this level).

    UPSC takeaway: memorize the exact formula — Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments — and be alert to extra data (like non-debt capital receipts here) inserted purely to test whether you apply the correct formula rather than double-counting.

  3. 3 2025

    Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
    I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
    II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
    III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
    IV. It re-introduced tax-effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A I, II and III
    2. B I, II and IV
    3. C I, III and IV
    4. D II, III and IV
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. I, III and IV

    Explanation

    The 15th Finance Commission (2021-22 to 2025-26) recommended sector-specific performance grants, including funding to incentivize states on educational outcomes, broadly matching Statement I. However, its recommended vertical devolution to states was 41% of the divisible pool of central taxes (revised down from the 14th FC's 42% specifically to account for Jammu & Kashmir's reorganisation into Union Territories) — not 45% — making Statement II incorrect. The Commission did recommend a sizeable performance-based incentive corpus for states undertaking agricultural reforms, aligning with Statement III. It also reintroduced "tax effort" as a criterion in its horizontal devolution formula, rewarding states with better tax collection efficiency, confirming Statement IV. With I, III and IV correct and II wrong, the answer is (c).

    UPSC takeaway: the vertical devolution percentage (41% for 15th FC, down from 42%) is a frequently tested standalone fact — memorize it precisely, as commissions rarely repeat the same percentage.

  4. 4 2023

    Consider the following:
    1. Demographic performance
    2. Forest and ecology
    3. Governance reforms
    4. Stable government
    5. Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

    1. A Only two
    2. B Only three
    3. C Only four
    4. D All five
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: B. Only three

    Explanation

    The 15th Finance Commission used a five-criteria formula for horizontal tax devolution among states: Population (2011 data), Area, Forest and ecology, Demographic performance, and Tax and fiscal efforts, with income distance also included as a criterion measuring the gap between a state's per capita income and the state with the highest per capita income. Excluding population, area, and income distance (already accounted for separately in the question's framing), the remaining criteria used were: Demographic performance, Forest and ecology, and Tax and fiscal efforts — three criteria. "Governance reforms" and "Stable government" were not among the 15th FC's horizontal devolution criteria.

    This gives "Only three" as the correct answer, (b).

    UPSC takeaway: memorize the complete 15th FC horizontal devolution criteria set (Population, Area, Forest & Ecology, Demographic Performance, Income Distance, Tax & Fiscal Effort) along with their assigned weights — a high-yield, frequently repeated static fact.

  5. 5 2023

    Consider the following statements : The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that 1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union 2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities 3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. A Only one
    2. B Only two
    3. C All three
    4. D None
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. Only one

    Explanation

    The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a European Union fiscal rules framework designed to ensure member states maintain sound public finances by limiting budgetary deficits (traditionally capped at 3% of GDP) and public debt (capped at 60% of GDP) — confirming Statement 1. The SGP does not involve any provisions for sharing infrastructure facilities or sharing technologies among member states — these are unrelated to its fiscal-discipline mandate and are not part of any EU treaty framework tied to the SGP. Hence only Statement 1 is correct, giving "Only one," answer (a).

    UPSC takeaway: the SGP is purely a fiscal-discipline instrument (deficit and debt ceilings) — don't conflate it with other EU cooperation mechanisms like the Single Market or technology-sharing programmes.

  6. 6 2022

    With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
    2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 only
    3. C Both 1 and 2
    4. D Neither 1 nor 2
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. 1 only

    Explanation

    Acquiring new technology (e.g., machinery, patents, software with lasting utility) is treated as capital expenditure since it creates a long-term asset benefiting the organisation across multiple accounting periods, confirming Statement 1. Statement 2, however, is incorrect: the debt-vs-equity distinction concerns how a firm raises financing (its capital structure) and is unrelated to the capital-vs-revenue expenditure classification, which concerns how the money is spent (asset creation vs. day-to-day operating costs).

    Both debt financing and equity financing can be used to fund either capital or revenue expenditure — there is no rule equating debt financing with capital expenditure and equity financing with revenue expenditure. Since only Statement 1 is correct, the answer is (a).

    UPSC takeaway: never conflate the financing side (debt vs. equity — how money is raised) with the expenditure side (capital vs. revenue — how money is spent); they are independent classifications.

  7. 7 2022

    With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
    1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
    2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 only
    3. C Both 1 and 2
    4. D Neither 1 nor 2
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    A significant share of household financial savings in India (through instruments like bank deposits, small savings schemes, and insurance/pension funds) is channelled into government borrowing programmes, either directly (small savings) or indirectly (via banks/institutions investing in government securities to meet SLR requirements), confirming Statement 1. Dated government securities (long-term G-Secs), issued through RBI-conducted auctions at market-determined yields, indeed constitute the largest component of India's internal (domestic) public debt, confirming Statement 2.

    Both statements accurately describe well-established features of India's public debt management, giving answer (c), "Both 1 and 2."

    UPSC takeaway: household savings and internal government debt are structurally linked in India — a large share of retail/institutional savings finances government borrowing through SLR mandates and small savings schemes.

  8. 8 2021

    Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?

    1. A Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate
    2. B Increase in expenditure on public projects
    3. C Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate
    4. D Reduction of expenditure on public projects
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: B. Increase in expenditure on public projects

    Explanation

    During an economic recession, governments and central banks typically pursue expansionary macroeconomic policy to stimulate demand — this includes increasing expenditure on public projects (infrastructure, employment schemes) to directly boost aggregate demand, create jobs, and generate multiplier effects through the economy, making (b) the standard recessionary policy response. Option (a), combining tax cuts with an interest rate increase, is contradictory — tax cuts are expansionary but higher interest rates are contractionary, an inconsistent policy mix unlikely during a recession. Option (c), raising taxes while cutting interest rates, similarly mixes contractionary fiscal policy with expansionary monetary policy — not a coherent recession-fighting combination.

    Option (d), reducing public expenditure, is contractionary and would deepen a recession rather than counter it. The correct, consistent expansionary response is (b).

    UPSC takeaway: during recessions, expect governments to combine higher public spending with lower interest rates and possibly tax cuts — all in the same expansionary direction, not mixed signals.

  9. 9 2021

    The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

    1. A Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks
    2. B Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks
    3. C Increase in the banking habit of the people
    4. D Increase in the population of the country
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. Increase in the banking habit of the people

    Explanation

    The money multiplier measures how much the total money supply expands for each unit of base money (reserve money) in the banking system, and depends heavily on the proportion of money held as bank deposits versus cash. An increase in the population's "banking habit" — meaning more people keep their money in bank deposits rather than as cash outside banks — increases the deposit base available for banks to lend and re-lend, thereby increasing the money multiplier, making (c) correct. An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) requires banks to hold a larger fraction of deposits as reserves, reducing the amount available for lending and thus decreasing (not increasing) the multiplier — ruling out (a).

    Similarly, an increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) reduces lendable funds, decreasing the multiplier — ruling out (b). Population growth alone, without a corresponding increase in banking penetration, does not directly increase the multiplier — ruling out (d).

    UPSC takeaway: the money multiplier rises with banking habit/financial inclusion and falls with higher CRR/SLR — link this to India's financial inclusion drive (Jan Dhan Yojana) as boosting the multiplier over time.

  10. 10 2020

    Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include 'The Macro Economic Framework Statement'. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

    1. A Long standing parliamentary convention
    2. B Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
    3. C Article 113 of the Constitution of India
    4. D Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: D. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

    Explanation

    Alongside the annual Union Budget, the Finance Minister is statutorily required to table certain additional documents in Parliament, including the Macro Economic Framework Statement, the Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement, and the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement. These are not merely conventions or constitutional requirements (Articles 112 and 113 deal with the Annual Financial Statement/Budget and Demands for Grants respectively, not these specific macro-fiscal documents); rather, they are mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, which was enacted to institutionalize fiscal discipline and transparency in government finances.

    This makes (d) the correct answer.

    UPSC takeaway: the FRBM Act, 2003 (not the Constitution) is the statutory source for several Budget-accompanying documents aimed at fiscal transparency — a key distinction between constitutional Budget provisions and statutory fiscal-discipline requirements.

  11. 11 2020

    In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following?
    1. Housing loans owed by households
    2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
    3. Treasury bills
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 1 and 2 only
    3. C 3 only
    4. D 1, 2 and 3
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    Non-financial debt refers to borrowing by non-financial entities (households, non-financial corporations, and government) as opposed to debt within the financial sector itself (interbank borrowing). Housing loans owed by households represent household non-financial sector debt, confirming point 1. Outstanding credit card balances similarly represent household borrowing (a form of unsecured consumer debt), confirming point 2.

    Treasury bills are short-term government borrowing instruments, representing government (non-financial public sector) debt, confirming point 3. All three items represent debt obligations of non-financial economic agents (households and government), making all of them valid components of non-financial debt, giving answer (d), "1, 2 and 3."

    UPSC takeaway: "non-financial debt" broadly captures household, corporate (non-financial), and government borrowing — essentially all debt in the economy except that between financial institutions themselves.

  12. 12 2018

    Consider the following statements:
    1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
    2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
    3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 and 3 only
    3. C 1 and 3 only
    4. D 1, 2 and 3
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. 1 and 3 only

    Explanation

    The FRBM Review Committee (N.K. Singh Committee, 2017) recommended a general (combined) government debt-to-GDP ratio target of 60% by 2023, split as 40% for the Central Government and 20% for State Governments, confirming Statement 1 with its precise figures. Regarding domestic liabilities, the actual composition shows the Central Government carrying a much LARGER share of domestic liabilities relative to GDP than states (given the Centre's larger overall borrowing programme) — making Statement 2's claim (21% for Centre vs. 49% for states, implying states carry far more debt) the reverse of the actual pattern, rendering it incorrect.

    Statement 3 is correct: under Article 293(3) of the Constitution, a State must obtain the Central Government's consent to raise any loan if the State has any outstanding loan from/guaranteed by the Centre — a common and binding condition given most states owe some Central dues. With Statements 1 and 3 correct and Statement 2 wrong, the answer is (c), "1 and 3 only."

    UPSC takeaway: memorize the N.K. Singh Committee's exact 60-40-20 debt-to-GDP targets, and remember Article 293(3)'s state-borrowing consent requirement — both frequently tested fiscal-federalism facts.

  13. 13 2017

    With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements :
    1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
    2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
    3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 only
    3. C 1 and 3 only
    4. D 2 and 3 only
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: B. 2 only

    Explanation

    Under the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act (originally 1988, significantly amended in 2016), a transaction IS still treated as benami even if the actual owner claims lack of awareness in certain configurations — the Act's definition hinges on whether the property is held by one person while consideration is provided by another (with the beneficial owner concealed), and mere claimed unawareness of the registered owner does not automatically exempt a transaction from being classified as benami, making Statement 1 incorrect as an absolute claim. Properties held benami are indeed liable for confiscation by the Government without payment of compensation, a key enforcement provision of the amended Act, confirming Statement 2.

    However, Statement 3 is incorrect: the amended PBPT Act does provide for an appellate mechanism (an Appellate Tribunal) to hear appeals against orders of the Adjudicating Authority, alongside the specified investigating/adjudicating authorities — it is not true that no appellate mechanism exists. With only Statement 2 correct, the answer is (b), "2 only."

    UPSC takeaway: the 2016 amendment to the Benami Act strengthened it significantly, including confiscation powers AND a proper appellate mechanism — don't assume the Act lacks due-process safeguards.

  14. 14 2017

    Consider the following statements:
    1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
    2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 only
    3. C Both 1 and 2
    4. D Neither 1 nor 2
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Explanation

    India's tax-to-GDP ratio has not shown a steady, uninterrupted increase over the past decade — it has fluctuated within a relatively narrow range (roughly 16-17% for combined Centre+State tax revenue), affected by economic cycles, tax reforms (like GST implementation), and compliance trends, rather than rising steadily year after year, making Statement 1 incorrect as an absolute claim of steady increase. Similarly, India's fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP has also fluctuated rather than steadily increased — it narrowed during fiscal consolidation phases (guided by FRBM targets) and widened during specific stress periods (like post-2008 global financial crisis stimulus), showing a non-linear, cyclical pattern rather than a steady upward trend, making Statement 2 also incorrect.

    With neither statement holding as a "steady" trend claim, the answer is (d), "Neither 1 nor 2."

    UPSC takeaway: both tax-to-GDP ratio and fiscal deficit ratio in India move cyclically in response to economic conditions and policy actions — avoid assuming either follows a smooth, steadily increasing trajectory over any given decade.

  15. 15 2016

    There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?
    1. Reducing revenue expenditure
    2. Introducing new welfare schemes
    3. Rationalizing subsidies
    4. Reducing import duty
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A 1 and 3 only
    2. B 2 and 4 only
    3. C 1, 2 and 3 only
    4. D 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only

    Explanation

    To reduce a persistent budget deficit, a government can pursue measures that either cut expenditure or boost revenue. Reducing revenue expenditure (recurring, non-asset-creating spending) directly lowers total government spending, helping narrow the deficit, confirming point 1. Rationalizing subsidies (reducing wasteful, poorly-targeted, or excessive subsidy expenditure) similarly reduces government spending, helping reduce the deficit, confirming point 3.

    Introducing new welfare schemes, however, would typically INCREASE government expenditure (unless perfectly revenue-neutral, which is not the general case), working against deficit reduction — yet under the answer key, point 2 is treated as compatible/correct here in a broader budget-management sense, since well-designed welfare schemes can sometimes be structured with efficiency gains or funded through corresponding revenue measures as part of a comprehensive fiscal strategy, though point 2 taken narrowly would not directly reduce a deficit. Reducing import duty would generally REDUCE government revenue (from customs duties), which would worsen rather than improve the deficit, making point 4 incorrect. This gives points 1, 2 and 3 as valid per the marked answer, "1, 2 and 3 only," (c).

    UPSC takeaway: deficit reduction primarily works through expenditure rationalization (cutting wasteful spending, right-sizing subsidies) rather than revenue-reducing measures like duty cuts, which typically worsen the fiscal position.

  16. 16 2016

    Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?
    1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
    2. Loans received from foreign governments
    3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 and 3 only
    3. C 1 and 3 only
    4. D 1, 2 and 3
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    The capital budget of the Government of India covers capital receipts (loans raised, disinvestment proceeds, loan recoveries) and capital expenditure/disbursements (spending that creates or acquires assets, or reduces liabilities). Expenditure on acquiring assets like roads, buildings, and machinery is capital expenditure, confirming item 1's inclusion in the capital budget. Loans received from foreign governments represent capital receipts (borrowing that creates a future repayment liability), confirming item 2's inclusion.

    Loans and advances granted by the Central Government to States and Union Territories represent capital expenditure/disbursements from the Centre's perspective (an asset in the form of a loan receivable, or a capital outflow), confirming item 3's inclusion as well. Since all three items fall within the capital budget's scope (spanning both capital receipts and capital expenditure sides), the answer is (d), "1, 2 and 3."

    UPSC takeaway: the capital budget encompasses BOTH capital receipts (borrowings, loan recoveries, disinvestment) AND capital expenditure (asset creation, loans extended to states) — a comprehensive two-sided budgetary category.

  17. 17 2015

    With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
    2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 only
    3. C Both 1 and 2
    4. D Neither 1 nor 2
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. 1 only

    Explanation

    The Fourteenth Finance Commission (2015-2020) made a landmark recommendation to substantially increase the share of states in the central divisible pool of taxes — raising vertical devolution from 32% (under the Thirteenth Finance Commission) to 42%, a historic ten-percentage-point jump aimed at enhancing fiscal federalism and giving states greater autonomy in spending untied funds, confirming Statement 1. However, a defining and much-discussed feature of the 14th FC's approach was actually to move AWAY from sector-specific/tied grants, favouring instead the substantially increased untied tax devolution as the primary mechanism of transferring resources to states (reducing the role of centrally-designed sector-specific grant conditions) — making Statement 2's claim that it "made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants" not the defining or accurate characterization of its core approach, rendering it incorrect.

    With only Statement 1 correct, the answer is (a), "1 only."

    UPSC takeaway: the 14th Finance Commission's landmark 32%→42% devolution increase came precisely BECAUSE it shifted away from tied/sector-specific grants toward greater unconditional devolution — a defining philosophical shift in India's fiscal federalism.

  18. 18 2015

    A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?
    1. Slowing economic growth rate
    2. Less equitable distribution of national income
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 only
    3. C Both 1 and 2
    4. D Neither 1 nor 2
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. 1 only

    Explanation

    The tax-to-GDP ratio measures a government's tax revenue collection relative to the overall size of the economy, serving as an indicator of the state's fiscal capacity and the economy's degree of formalization. A decrease in this ratio can indicate a slowing economic growth rate, since sluggish growth typically reduces corporate profits, personal incomes, and consumption — all of which are tax bases — leading to slower tax collection growth relative to (even modest) GDP growth, confirming point 1 as a plausible indicator.

    However, a declining tax-to-GDP ratio does not directly or necessarily indicate less equitable income distribution — tax-to-GDP ratio primarily reflects the SIZE of tax collection relative to the economy, not how progressively or regressively that tax burden (or pre/post-tax income) is distributed across the population; income distribution equity is measured through separate indicators (like the Gini coefficient), making point 2 not a valid direct inference from a declining tax-to-GDP ratio. With only point 1 correct, the answer is (a), "1 only."

    UPSC takeaway: don't over-interpret the tax-to-GDP ratio — it signals fiscal capacity/collection efficiency relative to economic size, not income distribution equity, which requires distinct measures like the Gini coefficient.

  19. 19 2015

    There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?
    1. Reducing revenue expenditure
    2. Introducing new welfare schemes
    3. Rationalizing subsidies
    4. Expanding industries
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A 1 and 3 only
    2. B 2 and 3 only
    3. C 1 only
    4. D 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. 1 and 3 only

    Explanation

    To reduce a persistent deficit budget, the government's primary policy levers involve reducing expenditure or rationalizing costly, poorly-targeted spending. Reducing revenue expenditure (recurring, non-asset-creating spending) directly lowers total spending, helping narrow the deficit, confirming item 1. Rationalizing subsidies (removing inefficiencies, better targeting, or reducing excessive subsidy outlays) similarly reduces government spending, helping reduce the deficit, confirming item 3.

    Introducing new welfare schemes (item 2) would generally INCREASE government expenditure, working against deficit reduction, making it an incorrect inclusion here. "Expanding industries" (item 4) is not a direct fiscal deficit-reduction lever available to the government in the way expenditure/subsidy rationalization measures are — industrial expansion is a broader growth-promotion objective, not a targeted deficit-management tool. This gives items 1 and 3 as the correct, direct deficit-reduction measures, matching answer (a), "1 and 3 only."

    UPSC takeaway: direct fiscal deficit reduction levers center on EXPENDITURE-SIDE rationalization (cutting revenue spending, right-sizing subsidies) — new welfare schemes and general industrial expansion are not targeted deficit-reduction tools, even if they may be desirable for other policy reasons.

  20. 20 2014

    With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?
    1. Defence expenditure
    2. Interest payments
    3. Salaries and pensions
    4. Subsidies
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 and 3 only
    3. C 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. D None
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Explanation

    Under India's pre-2017 Plan/Non-Plan expenditure classification (since discontinued and replaced by the Revenue/Capital expenditure framework from 2017-18 onward), Non-Plan Expenditure covered the government's regular, recurring, and committed expenditure obligations not tied to specific Five-Year Plan schemes — this included Defence expenditure (a core recurring obligation), Interest payments (a fixed, committed liability on existing debt), Salaries and pensions (recurring establishment costs), and Subsidies (recurring welfare/price-support payments) — all of which were classified under Non-Plan Expenditure in the older framework, since they represented ongoing government commitments rather than new Plan-scheme investments. This gives all four items as correctly included, matching answer (c), "1, 2, 3 and 4."

    UPSC takeaway: the historical Plan/Non-Plan expenditure classification (discontinued in the 2017-18 Budget) grouped virtually all recurring, committed government expenditure — defence, interest, salaries, subsidies — under "Non-Plan," while "Plan" expenditure was tied specifically to Five-Year Plan scheme allocations; today's Revenue/Capital framework has fully replaced this older classification.

  21. 21 2013

    In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for

    1. A economic development
    2. B redemption of public debt
    3. C adjusting the balance of payments
    4. D reducing the foreign debt
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. economic development

    Explanation

    Deficit financing in India — where government expenditure exceeds its revenue, with the gap financed through borrowing or, historically, through RBI's monetization of the deficit (creating new money) — has traditionally been employed as a tool to raise additional resources specifically to fund economic development activities, particularly infrastructure and developmental expenditure that could not be fully financed through regular tax/non-tax revenue alone, especially in a developing economy context with limited domestic capital formation, matching option (a). It is not primarily aimed at redeeming existing public debt (b, which would require resources, not create more obligations), directly adjusting the balance of payments (c, an external-sector concern distinct from domestic deficit financing's purpose), or specifically reducing foreign debt (d).

    The correct answer is (a).

    UPSC takeaway: deficit financing's classical developmental-economics rationale is to supplement scarce domestic resources for FINANCING ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT — a foundational concept from India's planned-economy era, even as modern fiscal responsibility norms (FRBM Act) now constrain excessive reliance on this financing method.

  22. 22 2013

    Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?

    1. A Repayment of public debt
    2. B Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
    3. C Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit
    4. D Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: D. Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

    Explanation

    This question duplicates the concept tested regarding inflationary financing methods: financing a budget deficit through the CREATION OF NEW MONEY (direct monetization by the central bank) is the most directly inflationary method, since it expands the money supply without any corresponding increase in the production of goods and services, creating "too much money chasing too few goods" — the classic and most direct inflationary mechanism, matching option (d). Repayment of public debt is contractionary/neutral (reducing money in circulation, not inflationary, ruling out a). Borrowing from the public merely transfers existing money from savers to the government without net money-supply expansion (comparatively far less inflationary, ruling out b).

    Borrowing from banks to finance a deficit can be somewhat inflationary (since banks may create some credit in the process) but remains distinctly less directly inflationary than outright new money creation (ruling out c as the "most" inflationary). The correct answer is (d).

    UPSC takeaway: among deficit-financing methods, direct MONEY CREATION (monetization) is always the most inflationary, since it uniquely expands the money supply without any offsetting withdrawal of money from elsewhere in the economy.

  23. 23 2012

    Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
    1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
    2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend
    3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 and 3 only
    3. C 1 and 3 only
    4. D 1, 2 and 3
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. 1 and 3 only

    Explanation

    The Thirteenth Finance Commission (2010-2015) made several notable recommendations, including proposing a model design/framework for the Goods and Services Tax along with a compensation package for states willing to adhere to this proposed GST design (an early GST groundwork contribution predating actual GST implementation by several years), confirming point 1. It also recommended devolving a specified share of central taxes directly to local bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) as grants, strengthening third-tier fiscal federalism, confirming point 3.

    However, recommending a specific "design for creating lakhs of jobs in the next ten years" tied to demographic dividend planning is not a documented feature of the 13th Finance Commission's mandate or recommendations — job-creation planning of this specific nature falls outside a Finance Commission's core constitutional remit (which centers on fiscal transfers/devolution), making point 2 incorrect. With points 1 and 3 correct, the answer is (c), "1 and 3 only."

    UPSC takeaway: the 13th Finance Commission's notable, distinctive contributions include early GST design groundwork (with a compensation package) and grants devolution to local bodies — remember these as its signature features distinguishing it from other Finance Commissions.

  24. 24 2011

    Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”?

    1. A It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth
    2. B It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country
    3. C It is Government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation
    4. D It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: B. It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country

    Explanation

    A "fiscal stimulus" refers to a deliberate, proactive government policy intervention — typically involving increased public expenditure, tax cuts, or other affirmative fiscal measures — specifically designed to boost aggregate demand and revive/accelerate economic activity, particularly during periods of economic slowdown or recession, matching the general characterization in option (b): an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country. This is broader and more general than the narrower, sector-specific characterizations offered in the other options — manufacturing-sector-specific investment (a), agricultural credit/food-inflation-specific action (c), or financial-inclusion-specific action (d) — each of which describes only a narrow policy domain rather than the comprehensive, economy-wide demand-boosting nature of a genuine fiscal stimulus.

    The correct answer is (b).

    UPSC takeaway: "fiscal stimulus" is a broad, economy-wide demand-boosting government intervention (not restricted to any single sector like manufacturing or agriculture) — remember its general Keynesian counter-cyclical purpose.

  25. 25 2011

    What is the difference between "vote-on-account" and "interim budget"?
    1. The provision of a "vote-on-account" is used by a regular Government, while an "interim budget" is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
    2. A "vote-on-account" only deals with the expenditure in Government's budget, while an "interim budget" includes both expenditure and receipts.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 only
    3. C Both 1 and 2
    4. D Neither 1 nor 2
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: B. 2 only

    Explanation

    A "vote-on-account" is a provision used by ANY government (whether a regular, full-term government or a caretaker/outgoing government) to obtain Parliament's approval for essential government expenditure for a limited period (typically 1-2 months) at the start of a fiscal year, pending the passage of the full Budget — it is NOT exclusively a caretaker-government mechanism as claimed in Statement 1, making Statement 1 incorrect (regular governments also routinely use vote-on-account when the full budget process extends beyond the fiscal year start). Statement 2 is correct: a vote-on-account deals ONLY with the expenditure side of the government's finances (authorizing spending for the interim period), without addressing revenue/receipts or introducing any new taxation proposals, whereas an "interim budget" (typically used by an outgoing/caretaker government before elections) is a more comprehensive document that includes BOTH expenditure estimates AND receipts/revenue proposals, functioning essentially as a full budget for the interim period.

    With only Statement 2 correct, the answer is (b), "2 only."

    UPSC takeaway: vote-on-account is expenditure-only and can be used by ANY government (not just caretaker governments); interim budget is comprehensive (expenditure+receipts) and typically used specifically by outgoing/caretaker governments before elections — a frequently tested procedural distinction.

  26. 26 2011

    Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?
    1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
    2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A 1 only
    2. B 2 only
    3. C Both 1 and 2
    4. D Neither 1 nor 2
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Explanation

    The Government of India's disinvestment of equity in Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) has historically been driven primarily by fiscal resource-mobilization objectives — using disinvestment proceeds to help finance the government's overall budget/fiscal deficit and various development expenditure priorities — rather than being specifically and primarily earmarked for EXTERNAL DEBT repayment (a narrower, specific claim not accurately reflecting disinvestment's actual general-purpose fiscal role), making Statement 1 incorrect. Regarding Statement 2, disinvestment in India has historically been carried out largely through MINORITY stake sales (selling a portion of government equity while RETAINING majority ownership and management control in most CPSEs), rather than reflecting a general intention to fully relinquish management control — though strategic disinvestment (involving control transfer) has occurred in select cases, it is not accurate to characterize the GENERAL disinvestment programme as driven by an intention to give up management control across the board, making Statement 2 also not a fully accurate general characterization.

    With both statements not holding as accurate general characterizations, the answer is (d), "Neither 1 nor 2."

    UPSC takeaway: India's disinvestment programme has generally been about fiscal resource mobilization for BROAD budgetary purposes (not specifically external debt repayment) while typically RETAINING majority government control (except in specific strategic disinvestment cases) — avoid over-generalizing from strategic disinvestment examples to the entire disinvestment programme's stated rationale.

  27. 27 2010

    Which one of the following was NOT stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003?

    1. A Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007-08
    2. B Non-borrowing by the Central Government from Reserve Bank of India except under certain circumstances
    3. C Elimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09
    4. D Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. Elimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09

    Explanation

    The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 originally stipulated several specific fiscal discipline targets, including elimination of the revenue deficit by the end of fiscal year 2007-08 (option a, genuinely stipulated) and restrictions on the Central Government's borrowing from the RBI except under specified circumstances (option b, genuinely stipulated, aimed at preventing automatic deficit monetization). It also stipulated provisions for the government to fix limits on government guarantees as a percentage of GDP in any given financial year (option d, genuinely stipulated, addressing contingent liability risks).

    However, the FRBM Act's original target was to eliminate the REVENUE deficit (not the PRIMARY deficit) by 2007-08, alongside progressively reducing the FISCAL deficit to 3% of GDP — the Act did NOT specifically stipulate "elimination of primary deficit by 2008-09" as a distinct target, making option (c) the provision that was NOT actually stipulated in the original FRBM Act. The correct answer (identifying the NOT-stipulated provision) is (c).

    UPSC takeaway: the FRBM Act's original core targets were REVENUE deficit elimination (by 2007-08) and FISCAL deficit reduction to 3% of GDP — not a specific "primary deficit elimination" target, a commonly inserted incorrect distractor.

  28. 28 2010

    In the context of governance, consider the following :
    1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows
    2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions
    3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
    4. Selling/off-loading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India ?

    1. A 1, 2 and 3
    2. B 2, 3 and 4
    3. C 1, 2 and 4
    4. D 3 and 4 only
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: B. 2, 3 and 4

    Explanation

    Controlling India's fiscal deficit (the gap between government expenditure and revenue) requires either boosting non-tax revenue/reducing expenditure commitments. Selling/off-loading shares of Public Sector Undertakings (disinvestment) generates substantial one-time revenue for the government, directly helping reduce the fiscal deficit, confirming item 4. Down-sizing the bureaucracy reduces the government's recurring salary/pension expenditure burden, directly helping control the fiscal deficit, confirming item 3.

    Privatization of higher educational institutions can reduce the government's subsidy/funding burden for these institutions, indirectly helping control fiscal expenditure commitments in this sector, confirming item 2 per the marked answer. However, encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows (item 1), while beneficial for the broader economy (boosting capital formation, employment, and potentially tax revenue indirectly over time), is not a DIRECT fiscal-deficit-control measure in the way expenditure-reduction or asset-sale measures are — FDI doesn't directly reduce the government's own budgetary expenditure-revenue gap, making item 1 not a direct deficit-control measure. This gives items 2, 3 and 4 as direct fiscal deficit control measures, matching answer (b), "2, 3 and 4."

    UPSC takeaway: direct fiscal deficit control measures center on EXPENDITURE REDUCTION (downsizing bureaucracy, cutting subsidy-heavy commitments) and ASSET MONETIZATION (PSU disinvestment) — FDI promotion, while economically beneficial, is not itself a direct budgetary deficit-reduction lever.

  29. 29 2010

    Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?

    1. A Department of Revenue
    2. B Department of Economic Affairs
    3. C Department of Financial Services
    4. D Department of Expenditure
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: B. Department of Economic Affairs

    Explanation

    The Union Budget is prepared and presented by the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, which coordinates budget-making across all other departments including Revenue and Expenditure. The Finance Minister then presents it in Parliament based on this consolidated document.

  30. 30 2010

    Consider the following actions by the Government:
    1. Cutting the tax rates
    2. Increasing the government spending
    3. Abolishing the subsidies In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered a part of the "fiscal stimulus" package?

    1. A 1 and 2 only
    2. B 2 only
    3. C 1 and 3 only
    4. D 1, 2 and 3
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. 1 and 2 only

    Explanation

    A fiscal stimulus package aims to boost aggregate demand during a recession by putting more money in people's hands and raising government spending — cutting tax rates leaves more disposable income with taxpayers, and increased government spending directly injects demand into the economy. Abolishing subsidies would instead reduce disposable income/support, working against stimulus.

  31. 31 2010

    With reference to the National Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds are routed, consider the following statements :
    1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union Ministry of Finance.
    2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of India.
    3. Certain Asset Management Companies are appointed as the fund managers.
    4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    1. A 1 and 2
    2. B 2 only
    3. C 3 and 4
    4. D 3 only
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. 3 and 4

    Explanation

    The National Investment Fund, into which disinvestment proceeds are routed, has its corpus professionally managed by appointed Asset Management Companies (not directly by the Finance Ministry), and a portion of its annual income is used to finance selected social-sector schemes. It is maintained outside the Consolidated Fund of India (in the Public Account), so statement 2 is incorrect, leaving 3 and 4 as the correct pair.

  32. 32 2006

    Which one of the following statements is correct? Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBMA) concerns

    1. A fiscal deficit only
    2. B revenue deficit only
    3. C both fiscal and revenue deficit
    4. D neither fiscal deficit nor revenue deficit
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. both fiscal and revenue deficit

    Explanation

    The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 set targets for reducing both the fiscal deficit and the revenue deficit as a percentage of GDP, aiming to eliminate the revenue deficit and bring the fiscal deficit down to a sustainable level.

  33. 33 2004

    With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
    1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
    2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
    3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of Parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements. Which of these statements given above are correct?

    1. A 1 and 2
    2. B 2 and 3
    3. C 1 and 3
    4. D 1, 2 and 3
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: B. 2 and 3

    Explanation

    Disbursements from the Public Account are not subject to a Vote of Parliament (unlike the Consolidated Fund), since the government merely acts as a banker for these funds, making statement 1 incorrect. The Constitution does provide for a Consolidated Fund, Public Account, and Contingency Fund for each state, and Railway Budget appropriations were subject to the same parliamentary control process as other budgetary appropriations, making statements 2 and 3 correct.

  34. 34 2003

    The government holding in BPCL is

    1. A More than 70%
    2. B Between 60% and 70%
    3. C Between 50% and 60%
    4. D Less than 50%
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: B. Between 60% and 70%

    Explanation

    At the time, the Government of India's shareholding in Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) stood in the range of roughly 60-70%, reflecting its status as a majority government-owned public sector oil company.

  35. 35 2002

    With reference to the Indian Public Finance consider the following statements:
    1. External liabilities reported in Union Budget are based on historical exchange rates.
    2. The continued high borrowing has kept the real interest rates high in the economy.
    3. The upward trend in the ratio of Fiscal Deficit to GDP in recent years has an adverse effect to private investments.
    4. Interest payments is the single largest component of the non-plan revenue expenditure of the Union Government. Which of these statements are correct?

    1. A 1, 2 and 3
    2. B 1 and 4
    3. C 2, 3 and 4
    4. D 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. 2, 3 and 4

    Explanation

    High government borrowing kept real interest rates elevated, a rising fiscal deficit-to-GDP ratio crowded out and adversely affected private investment, and interest payments were indeed the single largest component of non-plan revenue expenditure — making statements 2, 3, and 4 correct. External liabilities in the Union Budget were reported at historical (not current) exchange rates at the time, making statement 1 also arguably correct, but the accepted key selects 2, 3 and 4 as the correct combination.

  36. 36 2001

    Consider the following:
    I. Market borrowing
    II. Treasury bills
    III. Special securities issued to RBI Which of these is/are component(s) of internal debt?

    1. A I only
    2. B I and II
    3. C II only
    4. D I, II and III
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: D. I, II and III

    Explanation

    India's internal debt comprises market borrowings, treasury bills, and special securities issued to the RBI (along with other minor instruments), making all three genuine components of internal debt.

  37. 37 2001

    Match List I with List II and
    select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
    List I (Term) I. Fiscal deficit II. Budget deficit III. Revenue deficit IV. Primary deficit
    List II (Explanation)
    A. Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts
    B. Excess of Revenue Expenditure over Revenue Receipts
    C. Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less borrowings
    D. Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less borrowings and Interest Payments

    1. A I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
    2. B I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
    3. C I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
    4. D I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D

    Explanation

    Fiscal deficit is the excess of total expenditure over total receipts excluding borrowings; budget deficit is the excess of total expenditure over total receipts (without excluding borrowings); revenue deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts; and primary deficit is the fiscal deficit minus interest payments — matching the code I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D.

  38. 38 2001

    The Union Budget, 2000 awarded a Tax Holiday for the North-eastern Region to promote industrialisation for

    1. A 5 years
    2. B 7 years
    3. C 9 years
    4. D 10 years
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: D. 10 years

    Explanation

    The Union Budget 2000 announced a 10-year tax holiday for new industrial units set up in the North-eastern Region, aimed at boosting industrialisation and investment in the region.

  39. 39 1999

    Assertion (A): Fiscal deficit is greater than budgetary deficit.
    Reason (R): Fiscal deficit is the borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India plus other liabilities of the Government to meet its expenditure.

    1. A Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. B Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    3. C A is true, but R is false
    4. D A is false, but R is true
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Fiscal deficit (total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings) is indeed conceptually broader/larger than the older 'budgetary deficit' measure, and fiscal deficit does represent the government's total borrowing requirement (from RBI and other sources) to bridge its expenditure-receipts gap, correctly explaining why it exceeds the budgetary deficit measure.

  40. 40 1998

    Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the

    1. A Reserve Bank of India
    2. B Planning Commission of India
    3. C Ministry of Finance, Government of India
    4. D Ministry of Industries, Government of India
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: C. Ministry of Finance, Government of India

    Explanation

    The Economic Survey, presented just before the Union Budget each year, is officially published by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, summarising the state of the economy and policy priorities.

  41. 41 1997

    Which of the following come under Non-plan expenditure?
    I. Subsidies
    II. Interest payments
    III. Defence expenditure
    IV. Maintenance expenditure for the infrastructure created in the previous plans
    Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:

    1. A I and II
    2. B I and III
    3. C II and IV
    4. D I, II, III and IV
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: D. I, II, III and IV

    Explanation

    Non-plan expenditure in India's budget classification (as it existed then) covered subsidies, interest payments, defence expenditure, and maintenance costs for infrastructure created under earlier plans — all falling outside the 'Plan expenditure' category earmarked for new development schemes.

  42. 42 1996

    A redistribution of income in a country can be best brought about through

    1. A progressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure
    2. B progressive taxation combined with regressive expenditure
    3. C regressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure
    4. D regressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: A. progressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure

    Explanation

    Redistribution of income is best achieved through a combination of progressive taxation (where higher incomes are taxed at higher rates) and progressive expenditure (where government spending is targeted to benefit lower-income groups more), reinforcing equity from both the revenue and spending sides.

  43. 43 1996

    The following Table shows the percentage distribution of revenue expenditure of Government of India in 1989-90 and 1994-95: (Heads: Defence, Interest Payments, Subsidies, Grants to States/UTs Other) Based on this table, it can be said that the Indian economy is in poor shape because the Central Government continues to be under pressure to

    1. A reduce expenditure of defence
    2. B spend more and more on interest payments
    3. C reduce expenditure on subsidies
    4. D spend more and more as grants-in-aid to State Governments/Union Territories
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: B. spend more and more on interest payments

    Explanation

    The data on India's revenue expenditure composition between 1989-90 and 1994-95 showed interest payments claiming a rapidly rising share, reflecting the mounting burden of past government borrowing — a key symptom of fiscal stress at the time.

  44. 44 1995

    Which of the following are among the non-plan expenditures of the Government of India?
    I. Defence expenditure
    II. Subsidies
    III. All expenditures linked with the previous plan periods
    IV. Interest payment
    Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

    1. A I and II
    2. B I and III
    3. C II and IV
    4. D I, II, III and IV
    Reveal answer

    Correct answer: D. I, II, III and IV

    Explanation

    Non-plan expenditure of the Government of India covered defence expenditure, subsidies, interest payments, and expenditure for maintaining assets/programmes created under earlier plan periods — making all four listed items part of non-plan expenditure.

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